220-1101 Certification Overview - [Jan 27, 2026] Latest 220-1101 PDF Dumps
The Best CompTIA 220-1101 Study Guides and Dumps of 2026
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1, also known as 220-1101, is an entry-level certification exam designed for IT professionals who want to start or advance their career in the IT industry. 220-1101 exam covers fundamental IT concepts, such as hardware, software, networking, mobile devices, security, and troubleshooting. 220-1101 exam is divided into two parts, Core 1 and Core 2, and this article will focus on Core 1.
To prepare for the exam, you can take advantage of a wide range of resources available on the CompTIA website, including study guides, practice exams, and online training courses. You can also attend in-person or virtual training courses offered by CompTIA Authorized Training Partners to get hands-on experience and expert guidance.
NEW QUESTION # 211
Which of the following networking devices will most likely need to be installed in between the ISP running DOCSIS and the LAN in a SOHO environment?
- A. Switch
- B. Access point
- C. Firewall
- D. Cable modem
- E. Router
Answer: E
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:
To determine the correct device, we need to understand how a DOCSIS (Data Over Cable Service Interface Specification) network functions in a Small Office/Home Office (SOHO) environment:
C). Cable Modem:
A cable modem is required to convert the signal provided by the ISP (Internet Service Provider) over a DOCSIS network into a format that is usable by the local area network (LAN).
DOCSIS is a standard for high-speed internet over cable television infrastructure, and the cable modem acts as the gateway between the ISP's coaxial network and the LAN.
Without the cable modem, devices in the LAN would not be able to access the internet.
Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objectives (220-1101), Domain 2.2 - Compare and contrast Internet connection types, network types, and their features.
Incorrect Options:
A). Switch:
A switch is used to connect multiple devices within the LAN. It does not connect the LAN to the ISP's DOCSIS network.
B). Firewall:
While firewalls provide security by managing inbound and outbound traffic, they do not serve as the interface between the ISP and LAN.
D). Router:
A router directs traffic between different networks (e.g., between a LAN and the internet). However, in a DOCSIS network, the cable modem is the device that first connects to the ISP. Many modern cable modems also include built-in routers, but the modem is the primary device needed.
E). Access Point:
An access point provides wireless connectivity within the LAN. It does not connect directly to the ISP or handle DOCSIS signals.
Key Takeaway:The correct device required to interface between the ISP's DOCSIS network and the SOHO LAN is the cable modem.
NEW QUESTION # 212
Which of the following is the SAFEST way to replace RAM on a server that has a redundant power supply?
- A. Unplug one power cable.
- B. Verify the RAM temperature.
- C. Replace the RAM while the server is running.
- D. Utilize a grounding strap.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
Utilizing a grounding strap is the safest way to replace RAM on a server that has a redundant power supply.
This is because the grounding strap prevents electrostatic discharge (ESD) when handling the RAM, which can cause damage to the RAM and the server. Therefore, it is important to always use a grounding strap when handling RAM or other sensitive components.
NEW QUESTION # 213
A technician receives a call from a user about a new USB 3.1 docking station. The user claims that their laptop does not charge when connected to the dock. The user confirms that the AC adapter for the dock is plugged in. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
- A. Too many accessories are plugged into the dock.
- B. The dock is only connected to a USB 3.0 port.
- C. The dock is not designed to provide power passthrough.
- D. Proper drivers for the dock were not installed.
Answer: C
Explanation:
If a laptop does not charge when connected to a USB 3.1 docking station despite the AC adapter being plugged in, the most likely reason is that the dock is not designed to provide power passthrough. This means that the dock's primary function is connectivity for peripherals rather than power delivery to the laptop. The other options are possible but less likely if the sole issue is the absence of charging functionality when the dock and its power supply are properly connected.
NEW QUESTION # 214
Several users who share a multifunction printer in an office have reported unintended, thin, vertical lines that cover the entire height of every page printed from the printer. Which of the following steps should a technician complete in order to MOST likely resolve this issue?
- A. Reinstall the printer driver on each computer
- B. Perform the drum-cleaning procedure.
- C. Replace the printer paper with a new ream.
- D. Clear the print spooler on each computer.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 215
A technician is reviewing the following network settings for a workstation that is having trouble accessing the internet:
Which of the following is causing the issue?
- A. Networking was not configured using DHCP.
- B. The workstation has the incorrect gateway.
- C. The netmask is wrong.
- D. IPv6 should be used instead of IPv4.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The IPv4 address (192.168.10.5) and the gateway address (192.168.1.1) are on different subnets. With a netmask of 255.255.255.0, the network part of the IPv4 address is 192.168.10.x, while the network part of the gateway address is 192.168.1.x. For the workstation to correctly route traffic to the gateway, both must be on the same subnet. The correct gateway address should be within the same subnet as the IPv4 address, such as
192.168.10.1.
NEW QUESTION # 216
When a user's workstation is turned on, a message displays indicating that the date and time are incorrect.
Other computers on the network do not display this
message. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this issue?
- A. The CPU is slow.
- B. The time server is misconfigured.
- C. The CMOS battery is discharged.
- D. The BIOS is not updated.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The CMOS (complementary metal-oxide-semiconductor) is a small chip on the motherboard that stores the BIOS settings, including the date and time. The CMOS battery is a coin cell battery that provides power to the CMOS chip when the computer is turned off, so that the BIOS settings are not lost. If the CMOS battery is discharged, the CMOS chip will lose its data, and the date and time will be reset to the default values. This will cause a message to display indicating that the date and time are incorrect when the computer is turned on.
The other computers on the network do not display this message because they have functional CMOS batteries. The most likely cause of this issue is the CMOS battery is discharged, and it needs to be replaced with a new one12.
NEW QUESTION # 217
A technician just finished building a new PC and needs to install a firmware update for the system board UEFI. The technician is experiencing issues while accessing the USB key. Which of the following features should the technician most likely disable in order to complete this task?
- A. PXE boot capability
- B. USB 3.0 support
- C. Secure Boot
- D. TPM security
Answer: C
Explanation:
Secure Boot is a feature of UEFI (Unified Extensible Firmware Interface) that prevents unauthorized software from running during the boot process. Secure Boot verifies the digital signature of the boot loader and the operating system, and only allows them to run if they are signed by a trusted authority. However, Secure Boot can also prevent some legitimate software, such as firmware updates, from running if they are not signed or recognized by the system. Therefore, the technician may need to disable Secure Boot in order to install a firmware update for the system board UEFI from a USB key34. The other features are not likely to interfere with the firmware update, unless they are misconfigured or incompatible with the USB key.
Reference
3: bios - Can't enable secure boot in Windows 11
4: Acer aspire e5-571 Legacy Secure Boot?
NEW QUESTION # 218
Atechnician is replacing all RJ45 cables in a customer environment. Which of the following are the BEST tools to execute the task? (Select TWO).
- A. Cable tester
- B. Crimper
- C. Scissors
- D. Coaxial cable
- E. Optical fiber tester
- F. Screwdriver
Answer: A,B
Explanation:
Explanation
A cable tester and a crimper are the best tools to execute the task of replacing all RJ45 cables in a customer environment. A cable tester can be used to check the continuity and quality of a cable, and a crimper can be used to attach RJ45 connectors to the ends of a cable. An optical fiber tester is a tool that can be used to test fiber optic cables, which are not RJ45 cables. Scissors are not a tool for replacing cables, but for cutting them.
A coaxial cable is a type of cable that has a single copper conductor at its center, which is not an RJ45 cable either. A screwdriver is not a tool for replacing cables, but for fastening or loosening screws.
NEW QUESTION # 219
Using the output below:
Which of the following is the default gateway?
- A. 172.25.1.4
- B. 172.25.1.39
- C. 172.25.1.252
- D. 255.255.255.0
Answer: C
Explanation:
The default gateway is the IP address of the router or device that connects a network to another network or the internet. In the output below, the default gateway is 172.25.1.252, as shown in the line "Default Gateway . . . .
. . . . . : 172.25.1.252". The other IP addresses are not default gateways, but either local IP addresses (172.25.1.39 and 172.25.1.4) or subnet masks (255.255.255.0).
NEW QUESTION # 220
A regularly used laser printer is printing vertical lines on each page_ Which of the following should the technician do first?
- A. Change the paper type
- B. Lower the printing contrast.
- C. Install a new fuser.
- D. Replace the toner cartridge
Answer: D
Explanation:
The answer is D. Replace the toner cartridge.
Vertical lines on a laser printer output are usually caused by a faulty or empty toner cartridge, a dirty or damaged drum unit, or a clogged or obstructed laser glass. According to the web search results, some possible steps to troubleshoot and resolve this issue are:
Check the toner level and replace the toner cartridge if it is low or empty1.
Remove the toner cartridge and inspect the drum unit for any signs of damage, such as scratches, cracks, or toner buildup. Clean the drum unit with a soft cloth or replace it if it is damaged23.
Locate the laser glass, which is a narrow strip of glass under the scanner lid or inside the printer. Clean the laser glass with a lint-free cloth moistened with water and remove any dust, dirt, or debris that might block the laser beam24.
NEW QUESTION # 221
An end user reports that the time and date on a desktop resets after shutdown, and subsequently, the device reboots. The next day, the desktop does not load the OS and is stuck at a black screen with the following message:
Which of the following would be the BEST action to take next?
- A. Restore the BIOS to factory default settings.
- B. Replace the CMOS battery.
- C. Reseat the motherboard power connections.
- D. Change the motherboard.
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 222
A user's device needs more memory, so a technician installs extra RAM with the following specifications
2 x8Gb DDR3-1066(PC3-S500) 1 x 16Gb DDR3-1333 (PC3-10600)
Which of the following speeds would maximize reliability?
- A. 10,600
- B. 1,066
- C. 8.500
- D. 1 333
Answer: B
Explanation:
When multiple RAM modules with different speeds are installed in a system, the system will default to the speed of the slowest module to maintain reliability and stability. In this case:
The system contains two DDR3-1066 (PC3-8500) modules and one DDR3-1333 (PC3-10600) module.
The slowest RAM speed is DDR3-1066 (PC3-8500), and the system will run all memory modules at this speed to prevent timing mismatches and data corruption.
Key Concepts:
Backward Compatibility: RAM modules with higher speeds can operate at lower speeds when mixed with slower modules.
Reliability vs. Performance: Operating all modules at the slowest speed ensures stability, especially when modules have different specifications.
CompTIA A+ Exam Objectives Reference:
220-1101, Section 3.2: Covers selecting and installing appropriate RAM, understanding different speeds (DDR3-1066, DDR3-1333), and how system compatibility is ensured.
NEW QUESTION # 223
A user reports that a printer pulls multiple sheets of paper from the paper tray instead of a single sheet. Which of the following should a technician investigate to resolve this issue? (Select two).
- A. Duplexer
- B. Separation pad
- C. Toner cartridge
- D. Fuser
- E. Tractor feed
- F. Pickup roller
Answer: B,F
Explanation:
The correct answers are C. Pickup roller and D. Separation pad.
A pickup roller is a rubber wheel that grabs the paper from the paper tray and feeds it into the printer. A separation pad is a small piece of cork or rubber that prevents more than one sheet of paper from being fed at a time. If the pickup roller or the separation pad is worn out, dirty, or damaged, it can cause the printer to pull multiple sheets of paper instead of a single sheet. This can lead to paper jams, misprints, or wasted paper.
To resolve this issue, a technician should investigate the condition of the pickup roller and the separation pad and replace them if necessary. The technician should also clean the paper tray and make sure the paper is loaded correctly and not stuck together.
A toner cartridge is a component that contains the toner powder used to create the printout on a laser printer. A tractor feed is a mechanism that uses sprockets to move continuous paper through a dot matrix printer. A duplexer is a device that allows a printer to print on both sides of the paper automatically. A fuser is a part of a laser printer that melts the toner onto the paper using heat and pressure. None of these components are related to the issue of pulling multiple sheets of paper from the paper tray.
Reference: Types of Printers-What You Need to Know for the CompTIA A+ Exams
NEW QUESTION # 224
Which of the following storage options would a technician most likely recommend to have large amounts of affordable capacity without concern for read times on a desktop computer?
- A. 2x 1TB PCIe SSD in RAID 1
- B. 4TB SAS 2.5" 15,000rpm HDD
- C. 750GB NVMe M.2 SSD
- D. 2TB SATA 3.5" 5,400rpm HDD
Answer: D
Explanation:
Comprehensive and Detailed In-Depth Explanation:
If performance is not a primary concern and the user requires large, cost-effective storage, a 2TB 5400rpm SATA HDD is ideal. It offers high capacity at a lower price point than SSDs and faster HDDs.
* Option A: NVMe drives offer exceptional speed but are significantly more expensive per GB and not necessary when read/write speed is not a concern.
* Option B: RAID 1 improves redundancy but cuts usable capacity in half and uses expensive SSDs.
* Option D: SAS drives are fast and reliable but are enterprise-grade and expensive - overkill for desktop use.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:
* Objective 1.3: Given a scenario, install and configure storage devices.
NEW QUESTION # 225
A small ISP has hired a new technician Joe, the new technician, is being trained to configure customers* home networks The trailing instructor gives me technician a starter kit with cables, cable ends, and other network equipment and asks mm to build a working network.
The computer should be connected to have internet connectivity and the phone should be connected to have a dial tone.
INSTRUCTIONS
Use the appropriate cables. cable ends, tools and equipment to configure the network ana connect an components accordingly There are 3 steps and the simulation starts on step 1.
Answer:
Explanation:
See theanswer below in explanation part
Answer of both steps below.
NEW QUESTION # 226
Which of the following internet connection types would be the most readily available for users located on unimproved land that lacks infrastructure?
- A. DSL
- B. Fiber
- C. Satellite
- D. Cable
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
Satellite internet is the most widely available internet connection type, as it does not depend on cables or wires. It can reach remote areas that lack infrastructure for other types of internet connections1. References: Satellite Internet
NEW QUESTION # 227
A user uploads a file to a storage location that is accessible via a web browser and a client application. The user's coworkers can access the file as well. The service that the file is stored with is provided by a third party for a monthly fee. The third party's service is available to any business or consumer who would like to use the service. Which of the following BEST describes the type of service that is in use?
- A. Public cloud
- B. Hybrid cloud
- C. Private cloud
- D. Infrastructure as a service
Answer: A
Explanation:
A public cloud is a cloud computing model that provides services and resources to anyone over the internet. The service that the user uploads a file to is an example of a public cloud service, as it is accessible via a web browser and a client application, allows multiple users to access the file, and is provided by a third party for a monthly fee. A hybrid cloud is a combination of public and private cloud services that share data and resources. Infrastructure as a service is a cloud computing model that provides servers, storage, networking, and software over the internet. Private cloud is a cloud computing model that provides services and resources to a specific organization or group over a private network
NEW QUESTION # 228
Which of the following would be BEST reason to use a virtual machine as a sandbox?
- A. To have dedicated hardware for a single system
- B. To increase the efficient use of computing resources
- C. To test new software in a safe environment
- D. To run multiple machines on the same hardware
Answer: C
Explanation:
The main reason to use a virtual machine as a sandbox is to test new software in a safe environment without risking the integrity of the host operating system. Using a virtual machine enables the testing of software and allows for the isolation of the software from the host system. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Study Guide, Tenth Edition, pg. 409
NEW QUESTION # 229
A user is researching hard drives to upgrade a PC and has decided to purchase a NVMe drive.
Which of the following should the user confirm are available on the PC before making the purchase? (Choose two.)
- A. SATA
- B. SCSI
- C. PCIe.
- D. SAS
- E. M.2
- F. DRAM
Answer: C,E
Explanation:
NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express) drives are high-speed solid-state drives that utilize the PCIe (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express) interface to connect to the motherboard.
Before purchasing an NVMe drive, the user should confirm that the PC has an available M.2 slot for the drive and that the PC has a PCIe interface for the M.2 slot. SATA (Serial ATA) is an older interface for hard drives and is not compatible with NVMe drives. SAS (Serial Attached SCSI) is a newer interface for hard drives and is typically used for enterprise-level storage systems. SCSI (Small Computer System Interface) is a parallel interface for hard drives that is primarily used in high-end workstations and servers. DRAM (Dynamic Random Access Memory) is a type of memory commonly used in computers, but it is not relevant to the storage of data on a hard drive.
NEW QUESTION # 230
Which of the following DNS records is used to look up the IP address assigned to a domain name?
- A. NS
- B. A
- C. MX
- D. SPF
Answer: B
Explanation:
A DNS record is a data entry in a DNS server that maps a domain name to a specific value, such as an IP address, a mail server, a name server, or a text string. There are different types of DNS records for different purposes, and each type has a specific format and syntax12.
The A record, also known as the address record, is the most common type of DNS record, and it is used to look up the IP address assigned to a domain name. The A record maps a domain name to an IPv4 address, which is a 32-bit numerical value that identifies a device on the internet. For example, the A record for www.
google.com is 172.217.14.20612.
The other options are not correct because they are not used to look up the IP address assigned to a domain name. The MX record, also known as the mail exchange record, is used to specify the mail servers that handle the email for a domain name. The MX record maps a domain name to a priority value and a host name of a mail server. For example, the MX record for gmail.com is 10 alt1.gmail-smtp-in.l.google.com12.
The NS record, also known as the name server record, is used to delegate a domain name to a set of authoritative name servers. The NS record maps a domain name to a host name of a name server that can provide authoritative answers for the domain name and its subdomains. For example, the NS record for example.com is ns1.example.com12.
The SPF record, also known as the sender policy framework record, is used to prevent email spoofing and spamming by validating the sender's identity. The SPF record maps a domain name to a text string that specifies the authorized mail servers and IP addresses that can send email on behalf of the domain name. For example, the SPF record for microsoft.com is v=spf1 include:spf.protection.outlook.com -all12.
References:
DNS Configuration - CompTIA A+ 220-1101 - 2.6
CompTIA A+ Certification Core 1 (220-1101) [Video] - Packt Subscription, Section 2: Networking, Video
2.6: DNS Configuration
CompTIA A+ Certification Core 1 (220-1101) - GitHub, Slide Handout PDFs 1101, Chapter 2: Networking, Slide 2.6: DNS Configuration
NEW QUESTION # 231
The IT department at an insurance brokerage needs to acquire laptops that have built-in fingerprint readers in order to create a more secure environment. Which of the following would be the MOST secure way to implement the fingerprint readers?
- A. Limit device access to departments and guest users.
- B. Restrict device access to only the user to whom the laptop is assigned.
- C. Grant all registered employees access to each machine.
- D. Give each team member a USB drive that bypasses the reader to allow guest users lo log in.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Explanation
The most secure way to implement fingerprint readers would be to restrict device access to only the user to whom the laptop is assigned. This ensures that only authorized personnel have access to the device, reducing the risk of unauthorized access and data breaches.
NEW QUESTION # 232
A desktop support technician is tasked with upgrading a laptop so that it has the fastest data access possible. Which of the following BEST satisfies this requirement?
- A. mSATASSD
- B. 2.5SATASSD
- C. 2.5SASHHD
- D. M.2NVMeSSD
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 233
A technician is installing a wireless access point and is required to run all cabling and make patch cords if necessary.
INSTRUCTIONS
Part 1
For each cable type, click the (+) to select the appropriate connector and tool.
part 2
An access point was moved and no longer has connectivity. Connect the access point, patch panel, and switch by clicking the (+) to select the appropriate cable end for each corresponding location to create a link.
The link will be visible after making the second selection of each pair.
Cable ends may be used multiple times, and all placeholders will be filled.
Answer:
Explanation:
See the solution below in Explanation.
Explanation:
Check the exhibit diagram for both parts.
Part 2
A close-up of several ports Description automatically generated
NEW QUESTION # 234
When a user tries to print a document on a laser printer, vertical lines appear on the printout.
Which of the following should the technician replace?
- A. Toner
- B. Drum
- C. Mirror
- D. Fuser
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 235
Which of the following network devices is used to separate broadcast domains?
- A. Switch
- B. Wireless access point
- C. Router
- D. Hub
Answer: C
Explanation:
Explanation
A router (option C) is a network device that is used to separate broadcast domains. A broadcast domain is a logical division of a computer network in which all nodes can reach each other by broadcast at the data link layer. Routers operate at the network layer of the OSI model and use routing tables to determine the best path for forwarding packets between different networks.
By separating broadcast domains, routers can help to reduce network congestion and improve performance.
When a router receives a broadcast packet on one of its interfaces, it does not forward the packet to any other interfaces. This means that only devices within the same broadcast domain as the sender will receive the broadcast packet.
NEW QUESTION # 236
......
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 is recognized by many employers in the IT industry and is a requirement for many entry-level positions. CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 certification validates the skills and knowledge of IT professionals and demonstrates their commitment to the field of technology.
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