ISACA CRISC Daily Practice Exam New 2026 Updated 1890 Questions
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NEW QUESTION # 90
Which of the following is the MOST common concern associated with outsourcing to a service provider?
- A. Denial of service attacks
- B. Lack of technical expertise
- C. Combining incompatible duties
- D. Unauthorized data usage
Answer: D
Explanation:
The most common concern associated with outsourcing to a service provider is unauthorized data usage, which means the misuse, disclosure, or theft of the organization's data by the service provider or its employees, contractors, or subcontractors1. Unauthorized data usage can pose significant risks to the organization, such as:
Data security and privacy breaches, which can compromise the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the data, and expose the organization to legal liability, regulatory penalties, reputational damage, or loss of trust and credibility2.
Data quality and accuracy issues, which can affect the reliability and validity of the data, and impair the decision-making, reporting, or performance of the organization3.
Data ownership and control issues, which can limit the access and rights of the organization to its own data, and create dependency or lock-in with the service provider4.
The other options are not the most common concern associated with outsourcing to a service provider, because:
Lack of technical expertise is a potential but not prevalent concern associated with outsourcing to a service provider, as it may affect the quality and efficiency of the services provided by the service provider, and the compatibility and integration of the services with the organization's systems and processes5. However, most service providers have sufficient technical expertise in their domain or field, and they can offer specialized skills or resources that the organization may not have internally6.
Combining incompatible duties is a possible but not frequent concern associated with outsourcing to a service provider, as it may create conflicts of interest or segregation of duties issues for the service provider or the organization, and increase the risk of errors, fraud, or abuse7. However, most service providers have adequate governance and control mechanisms to prevent or mitigate such issues, and they can adhere to the organization's policies and standards regarding the separation of duties8.
Denial of service attacks is a rare but not common concern associated with outsourcing to a service provider, as it may disrupt the availability or functionality of the services provided by the service provider, and affect the operations or continuity of the organization. However, most service providers have robust security measures and contingency plans to protect and recover from such attacks, and they can ensure the resilience and reliability of the services.
References =
Unauthorized Data Usage - CIO Wiki
What is outsourcing? Definitions, benefits, challenges, processes, advice | CIO The Pros and Cons of Outsourcing in 2023 - GrowthForce
13 Common Problems of Outsourcing and How to Avoid Them - ENOU Labs
The Top 10 Problems with Outsourcing Implementation - SSON
10 problems with outsourcing (+ Solutions for each) - Time Doctor Blog
Segregation of Duties - CIO Wiki
Outsourcing Governance - CIO Wiki
[Denial-of-Service Attack - CIO Wiki]
[Business Continuity Planning - CIO Wiki]
NEW QUESTION # 91
An IT organization is replacing the customer relationship management (CRM) system. Who should own the
risk associated with customer data leakage caused by insufficient IT security controls for the new system?
- A. IT controls manager
- B. Chief risk officer
- C. Business process owner
- D. Chief information security officer
Answer: C
Explanation:
The business process owner is the stakeholder who is responsible for the business process that is supported by
the IT system, such as the CRM system. The business process owner has the authority and accountability to
manage the risk and its response associated with the business process and the IT system. The business process
owner should own the risk of customer data leakage caused by insufficient IT security controls for the new
system, as it directly affects the performance, functionality, and compliance of the business process. The other
options are not the correct answer, as they involve different roles or responsibilities in the risk management
process:
The chief information security officer is the senior executive who oversees the enterprise-wide information
security program, and provides guidance and direction to the information security managers and practitioners.
The chief information security officer may advise or support the business process owner in managing the risk
of customer data leakage, but does not own the risk.
The chief risk officer is the senior executive who oversees the enterprise-wide risk management program, and
provides guidance and direction to the risk managers and practitioners. The chief risk officer may advise or
support the business process owner in managing the risk of customer data leakage, but does not own the risk.
The IT controls manager is the person who designs, implements, and monitors the IT controls that mitigate
the IT risks, such as the IT security controls for the new system. The IT controls manager may advise or
support the business process owner in managing the risk of customer data leakage, but does not own the
risk. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, 7th Edition, Chapter 3, Section
3.1.1.1, pp. 95-96.
NEW QUESTION # 92
Which of the following is MOST important to understand when determining an appropriate risk assessment approach?
- A. Complexity of the IT infrastructure
- B. Value of information assets
- C. Management culture
- D. Threats and vulnerabilities
Answer: A
NEW QUESTION # 93
An organization recently implemented an extensive risk awareness program after a cybersecurity incident.
Which of the following is MOST likely to be affected by the implementation of the program?
- A. Threat landscape
- B. Inherent risk
- C. Residual risk
- D. Risk appetite
Answer: C
Explanation:
Residual risk is the level of risk remaining after controls and mitigation are applied. An effective awareness program reduces the likelihood of incidents (e.g., phishing, human error), thereby lowering residual risk.
Inherent risk remains unchanged, as it is independent of controls.
Reference:CRISC Manual - Domain 2, Slide 160-163
NEW QUESTION # 94
A risk practitioner has been asked to advise management on developing a log collection and correlation
strategy. Which of the following should be the MOST important consideration when developing this strategy?
- A. Ensuring time synchronization of log sources.
- B. Ensuring the inclusion of external threat intelligence log sources.
- C. Ensuring the inclusion of all computing resources as log sources.
- D. Ensuring read-write access to all log sources
Answer: A
Explanation:
Ensuring time synchronization of log sources is the most important consideration when developing a log
collection and correlation strategy, as it enables the accurate and consistent analysis and correlation of log
data from different sources and systems. Time synchronization can help to identify the sequence and causality
of events, and to detect and respond to any anomalies or incidents. Time synchronization can also facilitate
the compliance and audit of the log data, and support the forensic investigation and legal action if
needed. References = Most Asked CRISC Exam Questions and Answers, Question 10. CRISC: Certified in
Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions, Question 248. ISACA Certified in Risk and
Information Systems Control (CRISC) Certification Exam Question and Answers, Question 248. CRISC by
Isaca Actual Free Exam Q&As, Question 9.
NEW QUESTION # 95
You are working in an enterprise. Assuming that your enterprise periodically compares finished goods inventory levels to the perpetual inventories in its ERP system. What kind of information is being provided by the lack of any significant differences between perpetual levels and actual levels?
- A. Direct information
- B. Risk management plan
- C. Explanation:
The lack of any significant differences between perpetual levels and actual levels provides indirect
information that its billing controls are operating. It does not provide any direct information.
Answer A is incorrect. It does not provide direct information as there is no information about the
propriety of cutoff. - D. Risk audit information
- E. Indirect information
Answer: E
Explanation:
and C are incorrect. These are not the types of information.
NEW QUESTION # 96
Which of the following processes addresses the risks by their priorities, schedules the project management plan as required, and inserts resources and activities into the budget?
- A. Plan risk response
- B. Identify Risks
- C. Qualitative Risk Analysis
- D. Monitor and Control Risk
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
The plan risk response project management process aims to reduce the threats to the project objectives and to increase opportunities. It follows the perform qualitative risk analysis process and perform quantitative risk analysis process. Plan risk response process includes the risk response owner to take the job for each agreed-to and funded risk response. This process addresses the risks by their priorities, schedules the project management plan as required, and inserts resources and activities into the budget.
The inputs to the plan risk response process are as follows:
Risk register
Risk management plan
Incorrect Answers:
A: Monitor and Control Risk is the process of implementing risk response plans, tracking identified risks, monitoring residual risk, identifying new risks, and evaluating risk process effectiveness throughout the project. It can involve choosing alternative strategies, executing a contingency or fallback plan, taking corrective action, and modifying the project management plan.
C: Identify Risks is the process of determining which risks may affect the project. It also documents risks' characteristics. The Identify Risks process is part of the Project Risk Management knowledge area. As new risks may evolve or become known as the project progresses through its life cycle, Identify Risks is an iterative process. The process should involve the project team so that they can develop and maintain a sense of ownership and responsibility for the risks and associated risk response actions. Risk Register is the only output of this process.
D: Qualitative analysis is the definition of risk factors in terms of high/medium/low or a numeric scale (1 to
10). Hence it determines the nature of risk on a relative scale.
Some of the qualitative methods of risk analysis are:
Scenario analysis- This is a forward-looking process that can reflect risk for a given point in time.
Risk Control Self -assessment (RCSA) - RCSA is used by enterprises (like banks) for the identification
and evaluation of operational risk exposure. It is a logical first step and assumes that business owners and managers are closest to the issues and have the most expertise as to the source of the risk. RCSA is a constructive process in compelling business owners to contemplate, and then explain, the issues at hand with the added benefit of increasing their accountability.
NEW QUESTION # 97
A risk practitioner is reviewing the status of an action plan to mitigate an emerging IT risk and finds the risk level has increased. The BEST course of action would be to:
- A. suspend the current action plan in order to reassess the risk.
- B. evaluate whether selected controls are still appropriate.
- C. revise the action plan to include additional mitigating controls.
- D. implement the planned controls and accept the remaining risk.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The best course of action when a risk practitioner finds that the risk level of an emerging IT risk has increased, despite having an action plan to mitigate it, is to evaluate whether the selected controls are still appropriate. This is because the increase in the risk level may indicate that the current controls are not effective or sufficient to reduce the impact or likelihood of the risk, or that the risk environment has changed and new threats or vulnerabilities have emerged. By evaluating the appropriateness of the selected controls, the risk practitioner can identify the gaps or weaknesses in the control design or implementation, and determine the need for corrective actions or improvements. The other options are not the best course of action, because they do not address the root cause of the problem, but rather assume or ignore the effectiveness of the controls, as explained below:
* A. Implement the planned controls and accept the remaining risk is not the best course of action, because it assumes that the planned controls are adequate and aligned with the organization's risk appetite, which may not be the case if the risk level has increased. Implementing the planned controls without evaluating their appropriateness may result in wasting resources, exposing the organization to more risk, or missing opportunities to enhance the risk mitigation effectiveness.
* B. Suspend the current action plan in order to reassess the risk is not the best course of action, because it ignores the effectiveness of the current controls, which may still provide some level of risk mitigation, even if they are not optimal. Suspending the current action plan may also delay the risk response and increase the risk exposure, especially if the risk is time-sensitive or dynamic. Reassessing the risk without evaluating the appropriateness of the current controls may also lead to inaccurate or incomplete risk information and analysis.
* C. Revise the action plan to include additional mitigating controls is not the best course of action, because it assumes that the current controls are ineffective or insufficient, which may not be the case if the risk level has increased due to other factors, such as changes in the risk environment or the organization's objectives. Revising the action plan without evaluating the appropriateness of the current controls may result in overcompensating, duplicating, or conflicting the controls, which may affect the risk mitigation efficiency and performance. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 4, Section 4.3.3, page 130. How to Mitigate Emerging Technology Risk - ISACA, Risk Mitigation Strategies: Types & Examples (+ Free Template), 5 Key Risk Mitigation Strategies (With Examples) | Indeed.com
NEW QUESTION # 98
The MOST effective approach to prioritize risk scenarios is by:
- A. evaluating the cost of risk response.
- B. aligning with industry best practices.
- C. soliciting input from risk management experts.
- D. assessing impact to the strategic plan.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 99
An organization's control environment is MOST effective when:
- A. controls are implemented consistent
- B. controls perform as intended.
- C. control designs are reviewed periodically
- D. controls operate efficiently.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The control environment is the set of standards, processes, and structures that provide the basis for carrying out internal control across the organization. The control environment is most effective when the controls perform as intended, meaning that they achieve their objectives, mitigate the risks, and comply with the policies and regulations. The other options are desirable attributes of the controls, but they do not necessarily indicate the effectiveness of the control environment. References = Risk and Information Systems Control Study Manual, Chapter 2: IT Risk Assessment, Section 2.3: IT Control Assessment, page 69.
NEW QUESTION # 100
An organization has determined a risk scenario is outside the defined risk tolerance level. What should be the NEXT course of action?
- A. Develop a compensating control.
- B. Perform a cost-benefit analysis.
- C. Identify risk responses
- D. Allocate remediation resources.
Answer: C
Explanation:
According to the CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), the next course of action when an organization has determined a risk scenario is outside the defined risk tolerance level is to identify risk responses, which are the actions or measures taken to address the risk. Identifying risk responses helps to:
Reduce the likelihood and/or impact of the risk to an acceptable level
Align the risk response with the organization's risk appetite and risk tolerance Optimize the value and benefits of the risk response Balance the costs and efforts of the risk response with the potential losses or damages caused by the risk Coordinate and communicate the risk response with the relevant stakeholders References = CRISC Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3: IT Risk Response, Section 3.2: Risk Response Process, pp. 161-1621
NEW QUESTION # 101
The BEST key performance indicator (KPI) to measure the effectiveness of a backup process would be the number of:
- A. recurring restore failures.
- B. resources to monitor backups.
- C. restoration monitoring reports.
- D. backup recovery requests.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Section: Volume D
NEW QUESTION # 102
A business unit has decided to accept the risk of implementing an off-the-shelf, commercial software package that uses weak password controls. The BEST course of action would be to:
- A. obtain management approval for policy exception.
- B. select another application with strong password controls.
- C. continue the implementation with no changes.
- D. develop an improved password software routine.
Answer: D
NEW QUESTION # 103
A trusted third-party service provider has determined that the risk of a client's systems being hacked is low.
Which of the following would be the client's BEST course of action?
- A. Accept the risk based on the third party's risk assessment
- B. Perform an independent audit of the third party.
- C. Perform their own risk assessment
- D. Implement additional controls to address the risk.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A risk assessment is a process that identifies, analyzes, and evaluates the risks that an organization faces in relation to its objectives, assets, and operations. A risk assessment helps to determine the likelihood and impact of potential threats, as well as the adequacy and effectiveness of existing controls. A risk assessment also provides the basis for risk treatment, which involves selecting and implementing the appropriate risk responses, such as avoiding, transferring, mitigating, or accepting the risk. The client's best course of action in this scenario is to perform their own risk assessment, rather than relying on the third-party service provider's risk assessment. This is because the third-party service provider may have different risk criteria, assumptions, methods, or perspectives than the client, and may not fully understand or address the client's specific risk context, needs, and expectations. The third-party service provider's risk assessment may also be biased, outdated, or inaccurate, and may not reflect the current or future risk environment. By performing their own risk assessment, the client can ensure that the risk of their systems being hacked is properly identified, measured, and managed, and that the risk level is acceptable and aligned with their risk appetite and tolerance.
The other options are not the best courses of action for the client, as they may expose the client to unnecessary or unacceptable risk. Implementing additional controls to address the risk may be costly, ineffective, or redundant, and may not be justified by the actual risk level. Accepting the risk based on the third-party service provider's risk assessment may be risky, as the client may not have a clear or accurate understanding of the risk exposure or consequences. Performing an independent audit of the third party may be useful, but it may not be sufficient or timely to assess and address the risk of the client's systems being hacked. References = CRISC Review Manual, pages 38-391; CRISC Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Manual, page 792
NEW QUESTION # 104
Winch of the following key control indicators (KCIs) BEST indicates whether security requirements are
identified and managed throughout a project He cycle?
- A. Number of security projects started in core departments
- B. Number of employees completing project-specific security training
- C. Number of projects going live without a security review
- D. Number of security-related status reports submitted by project managers
Answer: C
Explanation:
The number of projects going live without a security review is the best key control indicator (KCI) to indicate
whether security requirements are identified and managed throughout a project life cycle, because it measures
the compliance and effectiveness of the security review process. A security review is a process that ensures
that the security requirements are defined, implemented, tested, and verified for each project, and that any
security risks or issues are identified and resolved before the project is deployed. The number of projects
going live without a security review should be minimized or eliminated, as it indicates afailure or weakness of
the security review process. The other options are not the best KCIs, because they do not directly measure the
identification and management of security requirements. The number of employees completing project-
specific security training, the number of security projects started in core departments, and the number of
security-related status reports submitted by project managers areexamples of input or output indicators that
measure the activities or results of the project, but not the security requirements. References = CRISC:
Certified in Risk & Information Systems Control Sample Questions
NEW QUESTION # 105
Which of the following would be of GREATEST concern regarding an organization's asset management?
- A. Lack of a mature records management program
- B. Incomplete asset inventory
- C. Lack of a dedicated asset management team
- D. Decentralized asset lists
Answer: B
NEW QUESTION # 106
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ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control Consultants CRISC Exam
ISACA Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control Consultants CRISC Exam is related to the Certified in Risk and Information Systems Control Certification. This CRISC Exam validates the ability to identify potential threats and vulnerabilities to the organization's people, processes and technology to enable IT Risk Analysis. It also tests the candidate skills to develop a complete set of IT risk scenarios based on available information to determine the potential impact on business objectives and operations. It also deals with the ability to Analyze risk scenarios based an organizational criterion to determine the likelihood and impact an identified risk and ensure that risk ownership is assigned at the proper level to establish clear lines of accountability. IT Risk Administrators Staff Risk and Control Monitoring Administrators and Reporting Personal usually hold or pursue this certification and you can expect the same job role after completion of this certification.
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